Biblical Hebrew Forum

["David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>]

Inter alios, Brockelmann, Noldeke, Ewald, Jouon (Muraoka did away with this 
in the English translation and revision), Davidson (I think) and Gibson all 
argued this way. I can't understand why they did - but then I approach the 
data having read the analyses of Zewi and Muraoka. Hindsight is often easier 
isn't it!

David Kummerow.


> From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
> To: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>,<b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re: Hebrew "Nominative"
> Date: Tue, 28 Sep 2004 22:16:57 -0700
>
> David,
>
> On 9/28/04 4:26 PM, "David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Personally, I don't like the resort to "pleonasm". I think it often 
> avoids
> > the issue and fails to give an account of a feature of the language. The
> > words "I don't know" could often be substituted for the word 
> "pleonastic".
>
> Exactly. It is like saying the pronoun was "dropped" from this clause. The
> pronoun wasn't dropped any more than HYH is dropped from a verbless clause.
>
> >
> > As for your examples, note that they are verbless clauses. It has been
> > popular in the past to regard this use of hw' as a copula. However, I 
> think
> > Zewi and Muraoka argue convincingly that this is not the case.
>
> How can a pronoun function as a copula? No need to answer this, since it
> isn't correct but as Hellenist, the notion strikes me as strange.
>
> See also my reply to Peter and Dave W.
>
> thanks,
> Clay Bartholomew

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