Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George F. Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>]

On Sat, 17 Jul 2004 15:48:42 -0500 "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
writes:
> Are you sure )XD is the subject of YPLW, or of YQYM? I read the verse 
> as follows, “For if they fall (plural subject referring back to the 
> previous verse), the one will cause his associate to rise,…” a 
> reading further strengthened by the fact that “fall” in the second 
> half of the verse is singular with a singular subject.
> 
> Karl W. Randolph.
> 
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>
> 
> > Verse 9 says that two are better than one because they will get a 
> better 
> > recompense for their work.  Then verse 10 says, if one falls the 
> other can 
> > lift him up.  But "falls" is plural, YIP.OLU., yet it's paired 
> with the 
> > subject HF)EXAD.  Any thoughts on why on earth this verb is in 
> plural?
> > 
> > -- 
> > Dave Washburn
> > http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
> > Insert clever epigram here...or not
> -- 
> _______________________________________________

KiY )iM_YiP.oLW. Hf)eCfD YfQiYM )eT_Ta:B"RoW . . .

I think Karl and I would agree here.  Ha)eXfD is the subject of YfQiYM
and is part of the apodosis.  "If they fall, the one will lift up his
companion . . ."

george
gfsomsel