Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Philip Engmann" <phil-eng AT ighmail.com>]

I made it clear that we cannot now reliably distinguish between 
corruption in translation, corruption of the Vorlage, and corruption of 
the Greek text after translation. Nevertheless, there are some errors 
which are characteristic of translation (for example, translation of the

wrong homonym), as well as some characteristic of corruption of the 
Vorlage and others of corruption of the Greek. I accept that the absence

of the LXX Vorlage complicates the analysis, but it does not make it 
meaningless.

But the question still remains:

1. How can one determine a corruption of the LXX Vorlage when it (the
LXX Vorlage) is not extant?

2. Determining a corruption in translation is not clear to me when the
LXX Vorlage is not extant.

Philip Engmann