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  • From: "Maurice A. O'Sullivan" <mauros AT iol.ie>
  • To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.Ibiblio.org>
  • Cc:
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] gen 1:2
  • Date: Fri, 04 Jun 2004 12:24:29 +0100

At 09:44 04/06/2004, you wrote:

I appreciate reading the views on this word, but can anyone tell me why it
is pointed in a manner that is inconsistent with practically all participle
conjugations. ie, the two 'segols'.

Chris:
You seem to be labouring under a misapprehension about "practically all participle conjugations". Just what, I wonder, do you think they are?

Let me quote from Lambdin -- as early as Lesson 4, he writes:

>>We shall begin our study of the Hebrew verb with the participal form mentioned above " [ note: "begin" <g> ]

After giving the masc. and fem. , sing. and plural forms he continues:

>> the first vowel is unchangeably long: the vowel of the second syllable is 'tsere' and therefore changeable. Note the feminine singular form with -et and a corresponding change in the vowel of the final stem syllable; the form with [ showing a shewa under the first syllable and a qamets under the final syllable ] is also found, but less frequently. <<

Regards

Maurice



Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros AT iol.ie






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