Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Maurice A. O'Sullivan" <mauros AT iol.ie>]

At 09:44 04/06/2004, you wrote:

> I appreciate reading the views on this word,  but can anyone tell me why it
> is pointed in a manner that is inconsistent with practically all participle
> conjugations.  ie, the two 'segols'.

Chris:
You seem to be labouring under a misapprehension about "practically all 
participle conjugations". Just what, I wonder, do you think they are?

Let me quote from Lambdin -- as early as Lesson 4, he writes:

>>We shall begin our study of the Hebrew verb with the participal form 
mentioned above " [ note: "begin" <g> ]

After giving the masc. and fem. , sing. and plural forms he continues:

>> the first vowel is unchangeably long: the vowel of the second syllable 
is 'tsere' and therefore changeable. Note the feminine singular form with 
-et and a corresponding change in the vowel of the final stem syllable; the 
form with [ showing a shewa under the first syllable and a qamets under the 
final syllable ] is also found, but less frequently. <<

Regards

Maurice



Maurice A. O'Sullivan  [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros AT iol.ie