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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect? Psalm 107

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  • From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
  • To: furuli AT online.no
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect? Psalm 107
  • Date: Sat, 22 May 2004 15:52:42 -0700

On 22/05/2004 12:57, furuli AT online.no wrote:

Dear Peter,

In order to have an intelligent exchange, please answer the question I posed to Vadim: If you use a modern linguistic approach, how can you know whether the WAYYIQTOL of )MR in Gen 1:3 has past reference because past tense is a *semantic* part of the form or whether the past reference is *pragmatic*?


I don't accept the presupposition behind this question, that there is a clean distinction between "semantic" and "pragmatic". Indeed I think the WAYYIQTOL discussions have demonstrated the absurdity of trying to make such a rigid distinction.

...
Also, please address my Phoenician examples (and similar examples from the Amarna letters) of infinitive absolutes functioning as finite verbs with past reference. Do they represent past tense ("grammaticalized location in time"), or is their past reference just pragmatic?


Why should I? Why are they relevant? Again you are trying to get me to make a distinction which I don't accept.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/





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