Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 22/05/2004 12:57, furuli AT online.no wrote:

> Dear Peter,
>
> In order to have an intelligent exchange, please answer the question I 
> posed to Vadim: If you use a modern linguistic approach, how can you 
> know whether the WAYYIQTOL  of )MR  in Gen 1:3 has past reference 
> because past tense is a *semantic* part of the form or whether the 
> past reference is *pragmatic*?


I don't accept the presupposition behind this question, that there is a 
clean distinction between "semantic" and "pragmatic". Indeed I think the 
WAYYIQTOL discussions have demonstrated the absurdity of trying to make 
such a rigid distinction.

> ...
> Also, please address my Phoenician examples (and similar examples from 
> the Amarna letters) of infinitive absolutes functioning as finite 
> verbs with past reference. Do they represent past tense 
> ("grammaticalized location in time"), or is their past reference just 
> pragmatic?


Why should I? Why are they relevant? Again you are trying to get me to 
make a distinction which I don't accept.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/