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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Proverbs 17:8
  • Date: Mon, 17 May 2004 15:13:57 -0500

Dear Reinier and Chris and Liz,

Many English translations render )EBEN-XEN as "charm" in the sense of a magic
stone. I wonder why. It is true that XEN can mean "beauty, elegance" and
therefore translating it with "precious stone" is acceptable. But "charm" in
the sense of a magical object suddenly jumps into a totally different
semantic domain. This is possible in English where "charm" has both meanings.
But is it possible in biblical Hebrew? I wonder about that.

HH: But XN also has the sense of "favor," and a stone that gave favor would be a charm. An interesting point here relative to Liz's question about intensive plurals is that B(L ("owner") is often plural with a singular suffix in a singular meaning. This is the judgment of Brown-Driver-Briggs, which also finds an emphatic plural for the word which has the meaning of "great lord" or "sovereign owner." So it might be possible to translate here "its owner."

HH: Whether, as Chris asks, it is the stone or the owner that prospers, it is ultimately the owner. The grammar might favor it being the stone that succeeds, since "owner" is in the plural whereas the verb "succeeds" is in the singular. One would have to study usage of the word B(L in the plural with a singular meaning.

HH: But one has to ask how a gem succeeds wherever it turns. I think of a gem being beautiful, but not succeeding. A charm stone, however, might succeed wherever it turns (using a pagan analogy).

Yours,
Harold Holmyard


Reinier de Blois

The question here centres on the word that is translated as 'gift' and
'bribe'; and also on the 'object' of the proverb either as 'the person'
who is the recipient of the 'gift/bribe' or the 'it' ie the gift/bribe
itself.

Personally speaking I favour 'gift' even though this word is often
translated as bribe elswhere, this is very much linked to the somewhat
esthetical sense of the word 'stone of grace' and its position in the
sentence?. Anyway please elucidate me with your grammatical intuitions.
I learn good things from these heated debates.
HH: "Stone of grace" probably implies a jewel (NASB: "precious
stone") or charm (NRSV: "magic stone"). The verses on either side of
Prov 17:8, which may not be related to it, concern evil. The Hebrew
word here, $+D ("gift/bribe"). almost always refers to something
evil. There's not a completely unambiguous example of a positive
meaning for the word in the OT, it seems to me. Also, the verse
suggests a somewhat negative meaning for $+D because it apparently
aims to bring success to the one who possesses it. A true gift is
given for the joy that it will bring to the recipient, not for the
success it will bring to the giver. So I would lean towards the bribe
interpretation.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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