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  • From: unikom AT paco.net
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53
  • Date: Sun, 16 May 2004 08:24:16 +0300 (EEST)

Dear Rolf,

Perhaps I missed something...
Both verbs in 52:14 are in the past, clear and simple. Why future?


Best regards,

Vadim


"52:14 puts
the suffering in the *past*"? I note that the LXX has future verbs in
this verse, one translates the Hebrew QATAL and the other translates
a Hebrew substantive. I take v. 14 as simple future, just as does the
LXX. Why should I not?





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