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  • From: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Patah in Ps. 20:9
  • Date: Mon, 1 Mar 2004 22:54:31 +0200

Thanks, Harold and Maurice, I think I get the garmmatical picture. I'm still
not sure what the difference in meaning between "venit(odad" and "vanit(odad"
would be.

Yigal
----- Original Message -----
From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan
To: Yigal Levin
Sent: Monday, March 01, 2004 3:04 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Patah in Ps. 20:9


At 23:29 28/02/2004, you wrote:


Can anyone tell me why the last word in Psalm 20:9, "vannit(odad", has a
patah under the vav instead of a sheva?

Yigal:
I see you have already got an answer on the list.

However, its brevity may not have been very helpful to you, so please open
the attached .GIF screen-grab from:
A Bibical Hebrew Reference Grammar

P.S
The usual English translation of that last very in v.9 is: >but we shall
rise and stand upright<

but this is a poor representation, IMHO, of the sense of the hithpolel,
which is rendered altogether better in the screen-grab from:
Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Hebrew (Old
Testament) / James Swanson.
also attached.

Regards,





Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros AT iol.ie







  • Re: [b-hebrew] Patah in Ps. 20:9, Yigal Levin, 03/01/2004

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