Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Thanks, Harold and Maurice, I think I get the garmmatical picture. I'm still 
not sure what the difference in meaning between "venit(odad" and "vanit(odad" 
would be.

Yigal
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan 
  To: Yigal Levin 
  Sent: Monday, March 01, 2004 3:04 PM
  Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Patah in Ps. 20:9


  At 23:29 28/02/2004, you wrote:
    

    Can anyone tell me why the last word in Psalm 20:9, "vannit(odad", has a 
patah under the vav instead of a sheva?

  Yigal:
  I see you have already got an answer on the list.

  However, its brevity may not have been very helpful to you, so please open 
the attached .GIF screen-grab from:
  A Bibical Hebrew Reference Grammar

  P.S
  The usual English translation of that last very in v.9 is:  >but we shall 
rise and stand upright<

  but this is a poor representation, IMHO, of the sense of the hithpolel, 
which is rendered altogether better in the screen-grab from:
  Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Hebrew (Old 
Testament) / James Swanson.
  also attached.

  Regards,





  Maurice A. O'Sullivan  [ Bray, Ireland ]
  mauros AT iol.ie