Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

Karl, it is because the frequent referrals to Aramaic, and that of the 
Targumim,that I thought the intent of some in the disucussion was the late 
Heb. of the the end of second temple period.
 
If one refers to pre-exilic pronounciation, one has to keep in mind that here 
too the time span is long: more than a thousand years  -- from the Amarna 
period  onwards.Here one has to base  ones  assumptions on: cuneiform,  
Arabic or  so called proto-Semitic,  and finally the MT even though the 
latter,  we know ,is  very late in terms of pronounciation
since ther language ceased to spoken for genrations prior to it.
 
As for Sin and Shin, both letters are part of the Semitic alphabet as 
attested in classical Arabic.
 
Uri


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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The word "or" in Numbers 13:18-20
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From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
> HH: There are grammatical and stylistic reasons. The "H" on the beginning
> of XZQ and RPH is an interrogative particle.

Follow-up question, Harold...
How can one tell that the "H" is supposed to represent an interrogative
particle in this case?  For instance, I read that the "H" can also signify
the article "the".  How do you know when the "H" is indicating a question
and when it is simply used as an article?

Case in point... the "H" is used on the beginning of RPH a number of times
in 2 Samuel 21 (vv. 16, 18, 20, 22) where it is translated "the Rapha" (the
weak one).  What is the distinction in this case?

Thanks,

Joe Glean --junior member--