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  • From: "David Kimbrough (CLWA)" <dkimbrough AT clwa.org>
  • To: 'Trevor Peterson' <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>, b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Cc:
  • Subject: RE: [b-Hebrew] Elohim
  • Date: Mon, 26 Jan 2004 09:26:55 -0800

Thank you for those clarifications, they were very informative. I certainly
agree with your point on the "majestic plural", that is probably confined to
the "P" portions of the Pentateuch. The Queen of England thing is of course
merely an analogy but one English speaking people grasp quite easily.

dkimbrough AT clwa.org


-----Original Message-----
From: Trevor Peterson [mailto:06PETERSON AT cua.edu]
Sent: Monday, January 26, 2004 9:21 AM
To: b-hebrew
Subject: RE: [b-Hebrew] Elohim


>===== Original Message From "David Kimbrough (CLWA)" <dkimbrough AT clwa.org>
=====
>Elohim is used in a variety of situations. It is the plural of eloa, or
>God.

This is a minor, picky point (well, at least for the sake of this thread it
is), but the he at the end of eloah is consonantal. That's why it's written
with a mappiq, and that's why it generates a furtive patach. (That's also
why
it appears in forms with endings added, like elohim, for instance). It
should
therefore be written in any transcription system that I know of.

>However it is generally understood to be the "majestic plural", rather
>the way the queen of England might say "We find our country most
beautiful".
>That does not mean that there are many queens or she suffers from multiple
>personalities but rather she is too important to be referred to in the
>singular.

I would make one quibble here as well--somewhat more substantive than the
last, though. When we get, for instance, na`ase 'adam btsalmenu (Gen 1:26),
that might be the same sort of thing as your queen of England parallel.
(Then
again, this doesn't seem to be the normative way that God refers to himself
in
BH, so maybe it's something else here.) But the apparently plural form of
elohim is different. I'm not saying it couldn't possibly have some
connection,
but it's not the same thing. Rather than a deferential use of grammatical
inflexion, we have here a more or less frozen form--apparently plural, but
regularly treated grammatically as a singular entity.
>
>Elohim is also used to refer to "foreign" or "false" gods, i.e. gods other
>than Yahweh. When Saul uses a medium to call up the spirit of Samuel, the
>medium says she sees "gods" (elohim) ascending out of the earth, i.e.
>Samuel's spirit raising from Sheol.

To clarify, when it is used of other gods, it sometimes functions as a
singular with reference to one pagan deity, sometimes as a plural.
Interestingly, there is a strong tendency in the Aramaic Targums of Onqelos
and Jonathan to render a Hebrew singular referring to a pagan god or idol as

plural. It's hard to say exactly why this is, but one suggestion I've heard
is
that the extent of paganism was heightened by always referencing a plurality

of false gods. (Not just one false god, but many of them.) This is
particularly significant, since the Aramaic alaha that translates Hebrew
elohim is not overtly plural in form.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

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