Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 03/09/2003 07:27, Liz Fried wrote:

> Dear Richard,
> The clause you suggest "I desire mercy" is not what I'm getting at.
> How do you say "I desire *him to be* merciful"?
> Understand?
> Liz
>
>  
>
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Richard Burks [mailto:rburks9400 AT comcast.net]
> > Sent: Wed, September 03, 2003 10:02 AM
> > To: Liz Fried; Biblical Hebrew
> > Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] syntax question
> >
> >
> > Liz,
> >
> > As I noted maybe I was missing something ... However if both the clauses
> > have a perfective meaning then they seem to say what you are asking ...
> > Exactly what time in the past does not seem important, the fact that both
> > clauses in your example are completed action seem the critical 
> > factor to me.
> > But then I don't see why you would have to say it differently in modern
> > Hebrew either.  
> >
> > I guess I will let someone else respond ... And maybe I will learn
> > something.
> >
> > Bill
> >
> > On 9/3/03 9:12 AM, "Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu> wrote:
> >
> >    
> >
> > > The point is how do you say "I wanted *him to go* yesterday."
> > > Liz
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >      
Surely the construction you are looking for is something like XPC + 
infinitive construct + personal suffix. But I can only find one possible 
example in the HB, Job 33:32. In such a case the personal suffix is 
regularly subjective, see GKC 115c, so NIV's "I want you to be cleared" 
is more likely than "I want to justify you".

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/