Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com>]

On 25/07/2003 07:45, Rob Matlack wrote:

> Peter,
>
> In English or Hebrew why would the non-consecutive vav with the perfect or 
> "now he had
> believed" imply that he had stopped believing?
>
> Rob Matlack          united_by_truth AT myrealbox.com
> Stilwell, OK
> "I can only say that I am nothing but a poor sinner, trusting in Christ alone 
> for
> salvation"--R. E. Lee
> "It is not our task to secure the triumph of truth, but merely to fight on its
> behalf."--Blaise Pascal
>
>
>  
The Hebrew does not imply this.

In English, how about "Now he had believed his friends would always help 
him out, but when he really needed them they didn't want to know." To me 
this implies that he no longer believed. Don't you agree? Of course the 
context in Genesis is a bit different, but I can see preachers taking 
v.8 as an indication that he had stopped believing. Of course that is 
not what the Hebrew means.

--
Peter Kirk
peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com
http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/