Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Pere Porta Roca" <pporta AT tinet.fut.es>]

I'm asking: the holam generally written on the aleph in such words as in Jb
30:16 (3d. word before the end of verse), in Jr 13:21 (4th word before the
end of verse), should it not be put on the preceding iod instead of on the
aleph?


Does anyone of you know if in today Israeli hebrew must this holam be
written as a waw (a waw that should be written between the iod and the
aleph)?

My advanced heartly thanks to those who will replay.

Pere