Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com>]

On 02/07/2003 22:28, Pere Porta Roca wrote:

> I'm asking: the holam generally written on the aleph in such words as in Jb
> 30:16 (3d. word before the end of verse), in Jr 13:21 (4th word before the
> end of verse), should it not be put on the preceding iod instead of on the
> aleph?
>
>
> Does anyone of you know if in today Israeli hebrew must this holam be
> written as a waw (a waw that should be written between the iod and the
> aleph)?
>
> My advanced heartly thanks to those who will replay.
>
> Pere
>
>
>  
I remember recommending that in BH texts such a holam should be encoded 
as if following the preceding consonant, yod in this case, and that the 
move to the following aleph (only I think if there is no other vowel on 
the aleph) should be a matter of rendering in the font. A commoner 
example is the word ro'sh, "head", the start of which must be 
distinguished from the start of r:'oh (Gen 48:11, shewa under resh, 
holam at left side of aleph), the infinitive construct of r'h "see".

--
Peter Kirk
peter.r.kirk AT ntlworld.com
http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/