Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Paul Zellmer" <pzellmer AT sc.rr.com>]

Karl,

If the second line in 14:32 referred to concepts like "supremacy" or
"retribution" or such, I would agree that your references are parallel and
support the former reading.  But XSH never seems to bring out those type
concepts, so I can't see either the parallelism or support.

Just my thots,

Paul Zellmer

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of Karl Randolph
> Sent: Tuesday, May 20, 2003 6:32 PM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Prov 14:32
>
>
> This verse gave me pause as well.
>
> In the context of other verses such as Proverbs 14:19 and 29:16
> and others leads me to prefer the former reading.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>
> Date: Mon, 19 May 2003 15:04:22 -0400
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Prov 14:32
>
> > Hello all.  The second half of the verse is what interests me
> here.  To wit,
> > is it referring to the death of the wicked man- hence relieving the
> > righteous of his troubler; or is it (and this is far fetched to me) a
> > reference to the righteous man's finding refuge in his own death?
> >
> > What say ye?
> >
> > +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
> >
> > Jim West
> >
> > Biblical Studies Resources
> > http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
> >
> > Quantum ad sensum tribuis, tantum spiritui detraxeris-  Zwingli.
> --
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