Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

Agreed.  I tend to think the notion that most people in that time were 
illiterate is a relic from the "olden days" of scholarship when it was 
assumed that these people were only about half-a step up from Neanderthal 
Man, and needs to be discarded.

On Monday 19 May 2003 11:42, Karl Randolph wrote:
> Bill:
>
> The specific examples of Jeremiah writing his name in the purchase document
> (Jeremiah 32:10) and writing a document to be read in Babel (Jeremiah
> 51:60) as well as other references to written works lead me to the
> conclusion that Jeremiah himself was literate. I may be wrong, but I also
> have the impression that basic literacy, as opposed to scholarship, was
> expected among Jewish society of that time, which would mean that Jeremiah
> had at least basic literacy if not scholarship.
>
> Karl.
>
> > Karl wrote:-
> >
> > > Thus Jeremiah, though he himself was literate, called on Barukh , a
> > > professional scribe, to write out his words.
> >
> > How do you know Jeremiah was literate?
> >
> >
> > Bill Rea, Information Technology Dept., Canterbury  University  \_
> > E-Mail bill.rea AT canterbury.ac.nz                                </   New
> > Phone   64-3-364-2331, Fax     64-3-364-2332                   /) 
> > Zealand Unix Systems Administrator                                    (/'

-- 
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur