Biblical Hebrew Forum

[tmcos AT canada.com]

Dear Friends, I am currently doing some research on the
subject of 'satan' in the Hebrew Bible and in the
non-canonical literature. I was wondering if you could
refer me to some good texts on the subject,
particlularly on the development of 'satan' as a
separate entity who is in opposition to God and man. I
was also wondering if you could comment on 1 Chron.21:1
where 'satan' appears without the article. Some
commentators argue that an anarthorous noun like
'satan' in this text is used as a proper name, whereas
in other places (Job 1&2 and Zech.3:1-3) it is
articular and means "the accuser, the adversary) I also
noticed that Ps.109:6 als uses 'satan' witout the
article and the KJV translates it as a proper name. I
look forward to your response.

                                                       
                                             Tony Costa
                                                       
                                    University of
Toronto

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>From lizfried AT umich.edu  Wed Jan 22 10:04:53 2003
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From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
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Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] Satan
Date: Wed, 22 Jan 2003 10:09:10 -0500
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Interesting you should ask.
I'm just now reading Elaine Pagels The Origin of Satan.
I have just started it, but it promises to be an excellent book,
Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of
> tmcos AT canada.com
> Sent: Wed, January 22, 2003 10:00 AM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Satan
>
>
> Dear Friends, I am currently doing some research on the
> subject of 'satan' in the Hebrew Bible and in the
> non-canonical literature. I was wondering if you could
> refer me to some good texts on the subject,
> particlularly on the development of 'satan' as a
> separate entity who is in opposition to God and man. I
> was also wondering if you could comment on 1 Chron.21:1
> where 'satan' appears without the article. Some
> commentators argue that an anarthorous noun like
> 'satan' in this text is used as a proper name, whereas
> in other places (Job 1&2 and Zech.3:1-3) it is
> articular and means "the accuser, the adversary) I also
> noticed that Ps.109:6 als uses 'satan' witout the
> article and the KJV translates it as a proper name. I
> look forward to your response.
>
>
>                                              Tony Costa
>
>                                     University of
> Toronto
>
> __________________________________________________________
> Get your FREE personalized e-mail at http://www.canada.com
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