Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>]

Dear Jeff,

 

The context of Isaiah 28 is referring to the UNBELIEF and exile of the Israelites of the Northern Kingdom of Israel. The people construed the prophetic voice as speaking in babbling voice. Therefore, they would then hear the Assyrian tongue (dialect/language) as just as meaningless, because they would be going into exile and would not be able to understand the language. It is the sin of unbelief. Paul, in I Corinthians 14, is making the application regarding tongues to be 1) real languages and 2) a sign of unbelief by the Jews. It is this means of a literal hermeneutic that Paul is applying to the context of I Corinthians 12-14. As the Israelites of the Northern Kingdom were given a sign of a foreign language (Assyrian) as a sign of unbelief, so to the Corinthians Paul is explaining the real purpose of tongues, as a sign of unbelief by the Jews.

 

En Xpistw,

 

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III

----- Original Message -----

From: SDBIBLESTUDY AT aol.com

To: Biblical Hebrew

Sent: Sunday, November 17, 2002 9:09 AM

Subject: [b-hebrew] Re: tsav latsav qav laqav - Isaiah 28:10&13

In a message dated 11/16/2002 3:55:26 PM Pacific Standard Time, ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk writes:

If Isaiah's hearers would not believe what he told them in simple language,
then they would be told in a foreign language which they did not know: the
Babylonian language.

The view from here...

I see this to hold true to context as well, but then I wonder, how in the world did Paul come up with what his application in 1 Corinthians 14:21?  Was that fanciful re-interpretation?  Was a perversion from the LXX?  Sometimes I am really amazed at the ways that scriptures from the Tanach are applied in the NT.

Jeff Fisher
Minister,  Church of Christ
San Diego ---
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