Biblical Hebrew Forum

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In a message dated 11/16/2002 3:55:26 PM Pacific Standard Time, ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk writes:

> If Isaiah's hearers would not believe what he told them in simple language,
> then they would be told in a foreign language which they did not know: the
> Babylonian language.
>
> The view from here...


I see this to hold true to context as well, but then I wonder, how in the world did Paul come up with what his application in 1 Corinthians 14:21?  Was that fanciful re-interpretation?  Was a perversion from the LXX?  Sometimes I am really amazed at the ways that scriptures from the Tanach are applied in the NT.

Jeff Fisher
Minister,  Church of Christ
San Diego