Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>]

No, but it is normal for other ancient languages e.g. Latin (without
modern Romance languages), Greek, Aramaic, Egyptian (without Coptic),
Sanskrit. That's not to say it's desirable...

Peter Kirk

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Trevor Peterson [mailto:06PETERSON AT cua.edu]
> Sent: 17 May 2002 16:17
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: RE: OFF TOPIC Modern Hebrew question
> 
> I agree with the contention, but another angle on the issue is, who
would
> teach Shakespeare without being able at least to read Modern English,
even
> to
> converse in it? I don't know, because I've never gone through such a
> program,
> but I wonder whether it is normal for someone to teach older stages
of,
> say,
> German, French, or English without knowing the modern form of the
> language?
> 
> Trevor Peterson
> CUA/Semitics
> 
<snip>