Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Polycarp66 AT aol.com]

In a message dated 3/18/2002 5:19:03 PM Eastern Standard Time, mc2499 AT mclink.it writes:


> This is turning your back on evidence and opting for 
> the modern English translation as your argument. This 
> unfortunately is no argument. The reason for what you 
> see in modern English translations is clear and I have 
> already explained it. This has nothing to do with 
> the original text as the Vulgate, LXX, Schlach and 
> Italian translations show you.
> ____________
_

I hardly think this is a just accusation.  As I understand Peter, he was speaking of the Hebrew when he said  "if I see convincing evidence that a b-noun time phrase in Hebrew can govern more than one finite clause coordinated by w-, then . . ."  That he would make a comparison with English does not signify that he is relying on English.  Sometimes I get the impression that the two of you would disagree on any very simple matter simply for the sake of disagreeing - and I mean both of you.

GfSomsel