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b-hebrew - Re: bereshit (translations)

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  • From: Polycarp66 AT aol.com
  • To: mc2499 AT mclink.it, b-hebrew AT franklin.metalab.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: bereshit (translations)
  • Date: Mon, 18 Mar 2002 22:28:51 EST

In a message dated 3/18/2002 5:19:03 PM Eastern Standard Time, mc2499 AT mclink.it writes:


This is turning your back on evidence and opting for
the modern English translation as your argument. This
unfortunately is no argument. The reason for what you
see in modern English translations is clear and I have
already explained it. This has nothing to do with
the original text as the Vulgate, LXX, Schlach and
Italian translations show you.
____________
_


I hardly think this is a just accusation.  As I understand Peter, he was speaking of the Hebrew when he said  "if I see convincing evidence that a b-noun time phrase in Hebrew can govern more than one finite clause coordinated by w-, then . . ."  That he would make a comparison with English does not signify that he is relying on English.  Sometimes I get the impression that the two of you would disagree on any very simple matter simply for the sake of disagreeing - and I mean both of you.

GfSomsel



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