Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Ian Hutchesson" <mc2499 AT mclink.it>]

>Ian, if I see convincing evidence that a b-noun time phrase in Hebrew
>can govern more than one finite clause coordinated by w-, then I will
>concede my point. But I will consider convincing only evidence which is
>accepted by the majority of modern English translation teams. I note
>that it is perfectly possible, good English and not poor style to do
>this in English, when there are only 2-3 coordinated subordinate
>clauses, as in "On the day that I chose Israel and swore an oath to him,
>I..." But I have not seen any such example.

This is turning your back on evidence and opting for 
the modern English translation as your argument. This 
unfortunately is no argument. The reason for what you 
see in modern English translations is clear and I have 
already explained it. This has nothing to do with 
the original text as the Vulgate, LXX, Schlach and 
Italian translations show you.

Why do you need to understand the Hebrew at all, if 
you simply use modern English translations as your 
argument?


Ian