Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Ian Hutchesson" <mc2499 AT mclink.it>]

>> This is turning your back on evidence and opting for 
>> the modern English translation as your argument. This 
>> unfortunately is no argument. The reason for what you 
>> see in modern English translations is clear and I have 
>> already explained it. This has nothing to do with 
>> the original text as the Vulgate, LXX, Schlach and 
>> Italian translations show you.
>> _
>
>I hardly think this is a just accusation.  As I understand Peter, he was 
>speaking of the Hebrew when he said  "if I see convincing evidence that a 
>b-noun time phrase in Hebrew can govern more than one finite clause 
>coordinated by w-, then . . ."  That he would make a comparison with English 

GfSomsel (a simple name might be nice!),

Let me invent a criterion: if I see convincing evidence that 
a time phrase such as br'$yt can stand at the beginning of a 
book without any qualification, then I might consider it 
possible in the case of Gen 1:1, otherwise I will consider the 
notion simply unsupportable speculation.

It's not difficult to do this sort of thing.


Ian