Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

Thank you very very much.
IT's things like this that make these
lists so wonderful, all the knowledge here,
and the willingness and patience to share.
Best,
Liz Fried

> -----Original Message-----
> From: David Stabnow [mailto:dstabno AT lifeway.com]
> Sent: Tue, January 29, 2002 9:34 AM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: Isaiah 8:23a
>
>
>
> Liz Fried wrote: "How should one translate 8:23a
> and having translated it, what does it mean?
>
> "Is it possible grammatically speaking to
> change the lo) to a low, as suggested by BHS?
> The same is accepted routinely by everyone for
> 9:2."
>
> DKS: Several scholars have argued that there is an asseverative
> particle L-
> that the Masoretes sometimes wrongly wrote with the aleph mater.
> Some also
> argue that the lamed or the lamed-aleph should sometimes be read as the
> optitive/concessive "lu".  There are several clear cases where
> the negative
> "lo)" should be the masculine possessive "low" and vice versa.  Of course,
> if we begin to assume that any instance of lamed could be interpreted in
> any of these ways -- especially if the same particle could be either
> asseverative or negative -- we are opening a Pandora's box of speculative
> and subjective translations.
>
> See Huehnergard "Asseverative *la and Hypothetical *lu/law in Semitic"
> (JAOS 103 (1983): 570f); a response in Steiner, "Lulav versus *lu/law"
> (JAOS 107 (1987): 121-22); see also Daniel Sivan and William Schniedewind
> "Letting Your 'Yes' Be 'No' in Ancient Israel" (JSS 38 (1993): 209-26) and
> bibliography there; and a cautionary note from Muraoka in _Emphatic Words
> and Structures_ (Brill, 1985).
>
> Dave Stabnow
> david.stabnow AT lifeway.com
>
>
>
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