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  • From: "Kevin L. Barney" <klbarney AT yahoo.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Text of Isaiah
  • Date: Tue, 21 Aug 2001 09:11:14 -0400


I understand that the LXX of Isaiah is considered to be rather
periphrastic and developed; that it is largely concerned with adapting
Isaiah to issues and concerns of the translator's own time. My question
is, is it sufficient to deal only with Hebrew sources to establish the
text of Isaiah (esp. MT and 1QIsa(a))? Or are there places where the LXX
or other ancient versions do seem to establish the original text? Can
anyone give specific examples where the LXX or other ancient versional
evidence seems to be superior to the Hebrew?

Kevin Barney
klbarney AT yahoo.com
Hoffman Estates, Illinois




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