Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George Athas" <gathas AT globalfreeway.com.au>]

| >> Then why the reference to David?
| >>
| >Probably added later in the post-exilic period by a Judaean.
| >Although I think Anderson and Freedman in their commentary
| >disagree.
|
| i think liz is correct.  this smacks of an editorial insertion, probably
| post exilic and probably Judean.

How do you argue the case, Jim? What leads you to the conclusion? Not that I'm
disagreeing, but I see many arguments based on a vibe rather than evidence, 
and then
conclusions and corollaries get built up on them as though the argument were 
solid.

Any thoughts?

Best regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
(Sydney, Australia)
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