Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Randall Buth <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>]

Message text written by "John Richards"
>> The NT writers do not seem to be finding proof-texts in the sense that I
think you are
> advocating. They seem to be employing typology. For example, Matthew's
Gospel uses the
> "out of Egypt" text as a precedent or "type" for Jesus rather than saying
that it was
> originally and totally about Jesus.

If this is the case, why does Matthew so frequently use the form "this
happened so as to FULFIL what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet .
.
. " - as he does with the "out of Egypt" quotation itself?
<

because 'fulfil' (leqayyem) in the first century Jewish culture ran a whole
range of meanings--
from pesher-like "this brings out the eschatological significance for the
last generation" 
to prophetic "this answers a prophecy"
to midrashic "this brings out the 'full' sense hidden in the text" 
to halaxic/midrashic "this brings out the truest application" 
to action "this action obeys the scripture, fulfils in obedience"

one should read Matthew from within the culture where 'don't flee on the
Shabbat' and 'listen to those on the seat of Moses' makes sense. This will
allow you to see the connection between the chapter 2 'midrashic/prophetic
fulfilments' and the chapter 5-7 'halaxic teaching fulfilments'.

bivraxot lHagim smeHim
Randall Buth