Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George Athas" <gathas AT globalfreeway.com.au>]

John Richards wrote:

| If this is the case, why does Matthew so frequently use the form "this
| happened so as to FULFIL what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet . .
| . " - as he does with the "out of Egypt" quotation itself?

I'll repeat what I wrote in my first response -- the main part is towards the 
end of the
quote:


|[...]   For example, Matthew's Gospel uses the
| "out of Egypt" text as a precedent or "type" for Jesus rather than saying 
that it was
| originally and totally about Jesus. The Gospel writers were out to proof 
text Jesus by
| seeing how he fit the mould of the ancient scriptural precedents set in the 
Hebrew
Bible.
| Thus, they see Jesus as "fulfilling" the precedents (ie, fitting the 
mould), rather than
| "making" the precedents. The Hebrew Bible gives the types, and Jesus is the 
anti-type.


Best regards,

Dr GEORGE ATHAS
(Sydney, Australia)
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