Biblical Hebrew Forum

[barre AT freedsl.com]

Not at all.  But one would one to know specifics
as when there is a prefixed anarthorous bet with
reshith with a perfect and look at the evidence
on a grammatical level if one is to get really
serious about the argument.  I know that one of
my old professor Bruce Waltke worked on the
problem at this level and concluded it was an
independent rather than subordinate clause.  As
for me, I have not.  I do wonder about the lack
of an article under bereshit--if it is
signficant.


L.M. Barre, Ph.D.
Angelfire.com/ca2/AncientIsrael
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