Biblical Hebrew Forum

[ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk (Ben Crick)]

On Mon 21 Feb 2000 (01:33:07), lewreich AT javanet.com wrote:
> The traditional Jewish commentaries indicate that some dire destruction
> or  desolation is portended here, which is not what I associate with
> the literal  meaning of "kherem", but strikes me as a reasonable
> interpretation.  What 
> puzzled me is why the English would have "curse", rather than, say
> "strike the land desolate". 
> 
> Is this the generally accepted rendering in English (I have only one 
> translation at hand)? 

 Probably; but IMHO the CheReM implies the total devotion to destruction
 such as befell Joshua's Jericho (Joshua 4:17-18). The exception was the
 silver, gold, brass and iron, which were QoDe$: consecrated for the use
 of YHWH, as opposed to being destroyed for the glory of YHWH.

 Following Adam's sin, the earth was "cursed" 'a:RuWRaH for his sake.
 This 'aRaR is spelt out in detail in Deuteronomy 28:15-68. If that is not
 bad enough, Malachi's CheReM is even worse, isn't it?  Like Jericho's
 fate?

 Ben 
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
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