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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: "Paul Zellmer" <zellmer AT digitelone.com>
- To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: Re: Re[6]: More ?'s about verbs
- Date: Wed, 19 Jan 2000 20:30:52 +0800
Dave Washburn wrote in part, in response to Peter Kirk:
> > Note my ALSO, which makes irrelevant your argument that "there are
> > plenty of instances where it can't possibly be a continuation" -
which
> > I agree with. However, you seem to be arguing from "it is not always
a
> > continuation" to "it is never a continuation", which is logically
> > false.
>
> Actually I have never said such a thing. It is frequently used in
> continuous narrative, and I wrote in print that it is the form of
choice
> for narrative prose. My point, though, is that continuation is not
> encoded in the grammatical form but in the semantics and
> pragmatics of the context. "Bill shot John. John fell down." These
> likely happened in sequence, but we know that based on the fact
> that people who are shot usually fall down, as well as the proximity
> of the clauses to each other. It is not encoded in the grammar, but
> in the context. Thus it is with wayyiqtol.
>
But, Dave, let's invert your English example: "John fell down. Bill
shot John." Admittedly, this could be just my perception, but I still
would see both of these events as being reported sequentially UNLESS
there were something in the context to indicate that the shooting
actually came first. I.e., the use of the simple past in this type
material indicates sequence by default, although the sequence can be
"overridden" by other clues. So sequence is encoded, or at least,
hinted at in the grammar.
On the other hand, if the inverted sentences were: "John fell down.
Bill had shot John.", then the use of the past perfect clearly codifies
a reversal of sequential reporting. It is not world knowledge that
drives it, it's grammar.
Just an observation: many times you seem to be appealing to semantics
and pragmatics as the controlling features when these are in agreement
with the grammatical form. How can you know which is actually in
control? How can you know that semantics and pragmatics are not
actually *limiting* factors which the writer uses to change the normal
understanding of the grammatical form?
Yours,
Paul
-
Re: More ?'s about verbs
, (continued)
- Re: More ?'s about verbs, Dave Washburn, 01/15/2000
- Re: More ?'s about verbs, Galia Hatav, 01/16/2000
- Re[2]: More ?'s about verbs, Peter Kirk, 01/17/2000
- Re: Re[2]: More ?'s about verbs, Dave Washburn, 01/17/2000
- Re: More ?'s about verbs, Rolf Furuli, 01/17/2000
- Re[4]: More ?'s about verbs, Peter Kirk, 01/17/2000
- Re: Re[4]: More ?'s about verbs, Dave Washburn, 01/17/2000
- Re: More ?'s about verbs, Galia Hatav, 01/18/2000
- Re[6]: More ?'s about verbs, Peter Kirk, 01/18/2000
- Re: Re[6]: More ?'s about verbs, Dave Washburn, 01/19/2000
- Re: Re[6]: More ?'s about verbs, Paul Zellmer, 01/19/2000
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