Biblical Hebrew Forum

[John Ronning <ronning AT nis.za>]

Dear Jim,

Let me rephrase my statement so you don't miss my point.

The YOD in dual endings is not a MATER (therefore not optional) - the YOD is
missing from the ending of YERUSHALAYIM in more than 99% of the cases.
Therefore, the pronunciation of Jerusalem in OT times was not with a dual
ending, but is a later contrivance.  This conclusion is reinforced by the LXX
transliteration plus the Aramaic spelling YERUSHALEM.

Do you have another explanation (as opposed to a simple reassertion of your
certitude based on facts you feel no need to share with the rest of us)?

John