Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<gs02wmr AT panther.Gsu.EDU>]

On Mon, 23 Aug 1999 nbtp AT sil.org wrote:
> Dear friend,

Shalum My Friend, (hey! your name is Yocef, also? cool!)

> Is this right? YHVH = haShem
> 
> Some one literally translated YHVH as haShem.  Is there any connection 
> between
> the two? Is there any histroy or theological reason behind it?

It is an extensive subject, as I'm sure anyone will tell you!  haShem is
not a literal translation, friend - because one may use Shem(Name)
in multiple settings and contexts(shmot meeshpakakha, leekro beh'Shem,
le'asot shem le'atsmo, etc), but Y-H-W-H is eternal and ineffable, and it 
cannot be thrown around so invariably in dialogue. I think and am pretty
sure ha-Shem you are talking about is used mostly on Tfeel'Ah(prayer), and
in that sense it takes a very significant theological role, and it DOES
reflect one of the TITLES(but not a *name*) for The Creator(e.g. Baruch
HaShem YHWH UL). 

On a related topic, can anyone explain how Shem can also be used for
'Semite' !(ben'ey Shem). How did this derivation from Noah's son come to
mean both Semetic people as well as a term defined as "the name." ? Was
this some kind of odd mixup with the Hebrew or is it from some other
greater reasoning?


Shalum Beh'Shem ElohiyM !,

Wondell M. Rachman (Yahua'Sef)