Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT sil.org]

Does ha'anashim ANYWHERE in MT clearly include women? BDB defines IYSH 
as man opposed to woman, while pointing out a few places where it is 
used in the sense "each" and "anyone" of women also, and of inanimate 
things. But BDB nowhere quotes the plural used of men and women 
together. Holladay suggests such phrases as 'anshe Nineweh in Jonah 
3:5, but in the historical context this (as well as the sailors) was 
most probably a reference to the males only. 'Anshe habbayit in Gen 
39:11 may have included women servants, but perhaps not as their 
testimony would not have been accepted. So I would conclude (though 
not perhaps politically correctly) that 'anashim should be always 
glossed "men", which of course in English does not necessarily 
females.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Female Sailors
Author:  manstey AT portal.ca at internet
Date:    14/07/1999 23:15


Gday all,

I am working on Jonah, and it struck me that even the NRSV assumes that the 
sailors were all male. Can anyone inform me as to the possibility 
(historically? biblically? etc?) of female sailors in this story? The Hebrew 
uses all unmarked nouns and verbs, so linguistically it seems possible. As 
far as I can see, only the TEV uses gender-inclusive language throughout by 
always referring to "sailors" and never "the men". However in an interlinear 
we need to decide whether ha'anashim is glossed here as 'the.men' or 
'the.people'. Thanks very much,

With regards,
Matthew Anstey
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