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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
- To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>, <manstey AT portal.ca>
- Subject: Re: Female Sailors
- Date: Thu, 15 Jul 1999 19:55:57 -0400
Does ha'anashim ANYWHERE in MT clearly include women? BDB defines IYSH
as man opposed to woman, while pointing out a few places where it is
used in the sense "each" and "anyone" of women also, and of inanimate
things. But BDB nowhere quotes the plural used of men and women
together. Holladay suggests such phrases as 'anshe Nineweh in Jonah
3:5, but in the historical context this (as well as the sailors) was
most probably a reference to the males only. 'Anshe habbayit in Gen
39:11 may have included women servants, but perhaps not as their
testimony would not have been accepted. So I would conclude (though
not perhaps politically correctly) that 'anashim should be always
glossed "men", which of course in English does not necessarily
females.
Peter Kirk
______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: Female Sailors
Author: manstey AT portal.ca at internet
Date: 14/07/1999 23:15
Gday all,
I am working on Jonah, and it struck me that even the NRSV assumes that the
sailors were all male. Can anyone inform me as to the possibility
(historically? biblically? etc?) of female sailors in this story? The Hebrew
uses all unmarked nouns and verbs, so linguistically it seems possible. As
far as I can see, only the TEV uses gender-inclusive language throughout by
always referring to "sailors" and never "the men". However in an interlinear
we need to decide whether ha'anashim is glossed here as 'the.men' or
'the.people'. Thanks very much,
With regards,
Matthew Anstey
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-
Female Sailors,
Matthew Anstey, 07/15/1999
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Female Sailors, peter_kirk, 07/15/1999
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