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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: John Ronning <ronning AT ilink.nis.za>
- To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
- Subject: Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba
- Date: Fri, 30 Apr 1999 19:34:11 -0700
Vincent DeCaen wrote:
>
> chers b-haverim,
>
> the MORPH database parses both ZFQ"N and B.F) in 1kings 1:1 as
> pasts/perfects. in both cases this seems unlikely to me, but i was
> wondering what y'all thought. is ZFQ"N an adjective, participle or
> past tense? is B.F) participle or past tense?
>
Vince and Lee,
Wouldn't Gen 18:11 indicate adjective + participle?
Abraham and Sarah (were - no hayah) zeqenim, ba'im bayyamim
John Ronning
-
1kings 1:1, zaqen ba,
Vincent DeCaen, 04/28/1999
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba, Lee R. Martin, 04/28/1999
- Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba, Lee R. Martin, 04/28/1999
- Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba, Paul Zellmer, 04/28/1999
- Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba, yochanan bitan, 04/30/1999
-
Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba,
John Ronning, 04/30/1999
- Re: 1kings 1:1, zaqen ba, John Ronning, 04/30/1999
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