Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Dear Vince,
Since discourses often begin with x-qatal, I would expect ZFQ"N to be 
perfect, and B.F
to be a participle. Cf. Gen. 1:1.  If ZFQ"N were an adjective, I would expect 
the
perfect of HYH to accompany the adj. Cf. Gen. 3:1.  Have you found other 
discourses
beginning with an adjective without HYH?
W:LO) Y"XFM LOW the negative wayyiqtol and is unrelated syntactically to 
ZFQ"N.

Vincent DeCaen wrote:

> chers b-haverim,
>
> the MORPH database parses both ZFQ"N and B.F) in 1kings 1:1 as
> pasts/perfects. in both cases this seems unlikely to me, but i was
> wondering what y'all thought. is ZFQ"N an adjective, participle or
> past tense? is B.F) participle or past tense?
>
> here's my thought. the construction taken as a whole is unlikely to be
> two qatals. while zaqen might be a tense form, ba' probably isn't;
> therefore it is a participle by default.
>
> the reading of zaqen as qatal is inconsistent in discourse context,
> with W:LO) Y"XFM LOW in the same verse: therefore it should be a
> verbless construction, therefore zaqen as adjective playing the role
> of nominal.
>
> any takers?
> cc offlist
>
> sholom
> V
> -=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
> Dr Vincent DeCaen     <decaen AT chass.utoronto.ca>
> c/o Near and Middle Eastern Civilizations, 4 Bancroft Ave., 2d floor
> University of Toronto, Toronto ON, CANADA, M5S 1A1
>
> Hebrew Syntax Encoding Initiative, www.chass.utoronto.ca/~decaen/hsei/
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--

Lee R. Martin
Pastor, Prospect Church of God, Cleveland, Tennessee
Instructor in Hebrew and Old Testament
Church of God Theological Seminary
http://earth.vol.com/~lmartin/