Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Vincent DeCaen <decaen AT chass.utoronto.ca>]

chers b-haverim,

the MORPH database parses both ZFQ"N and B.F) in 1kings 1:1 as
pasts/perfects. in both cases this seems unlikely to me, but i was
wondering what y'all thought. is ZFQ"N an adjective, participle or
past tense? is B.F) participle or past tense?

here's my thought. the construction taken as a whole is unlikely to be
two qatals. while zaqen might be a tense form, ba' probably isn't;
therefore it is a participle by default.

the reading of zaqen as qatal is inconsistent in discourse context,
with W:LO) Y"XFM LOW in the same verse: therefore it should be a
verbless construction, therefore zaqen as adjective playing the role
of nominal.

any takers?
cc offlist

sholom
V 
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Dr Vincent DeCaen     <decaen AT chass.utoronto.ca>
c/o Near and Middle Eastern Civilizations, 4 Bancroft Ave., 2d floor
University of Toronto, Toronto ON, CANADA, M5S 1A1

Hebrew Syntax Encoding Initiative, www.chass.utoronto.ca/~decaen/hsei/
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Where once the student was taught that the unexamined life was not
worth living, he is now taught that the profitably lived life is not
worth examining. --Benjamin Barber