Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Dear Vince,
Josh. 13:1 seems to indicate that both ZFQ"N and B.F) may be perfects.  They 
are
stated first as background, then as direct speech.  In any case, the whole 
phrase is
found several times in the Bible and is probably an idiom.

Vincent DeCaen wrote:

> chers b-haverim,
>
> the MORPH database parses both ZFQ"N and B.F) in 1kings 1:1 as
> pasts/perfects. in both cases this seems unlikely to me, but i was
> wondering what y'all thought. is ZFQ"N an adjective, participle or
> past tense? is B.F) participle or past tense?
>
> here's my thought. the construction taken as a whole is unlikely to be
> two qatals. while zaqen might be a tense form, ba' probably isn't;
> therefore it is a participle by default.
>
> the reading of zaqen as qatal is inconsistent in discourse context,
> with W:LO) Y"XFM LOW in the same verse: therefore it should be a
> verbless construction, therefore zaqen as adjective playing the role
> of nominal.
>
> any takers?
> cc offlist
>
> sholom
> V
> -=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
> Dr Vincent DeCaen     <decaen AT chass.utoronto.ca>
> c/o Near and Middle Eastern Civilizations, 4 Bancroft Ave., 2d floor
> University of Toronto, Toronto ON, CANADA, M5S 1A1
>
> Hebrew Syntax Encoding Initiative, www.chass.utoronto.ca/~decaen/hsei/
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--

Lee R. Martin
Pastor, Prospect Church of God, Cleveland, Tennessee
Instructor in Hebrew and Old Testament
Church of God Theological Seminary
http://earth.vol.com/~lmartin/