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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Paul Zellmer <zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph>
- To: list b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: Why the KIY?
- Date: Sat, 20 Mar 1999 00:43:49 +0800
Sometimes the questions the young scholars ask remind me of the
questions of two-year-olds. This next one is seems like that
perennial question, "Why?"
In Ruth 1:10, the group wants to know why the imbedded speech
begins with KIY. Their leaning right now is that it could be an
entire verbless relative clause that is being fronted. To
"unfront" it and thus show what they see the unmarked form as
being, it would translate something like, "We are returning to
your people so that (we can be) with you." The other main option
that they put forward was an X-yiqtol relative clause that
explained why they were kissing and crying and calling out (not
necessarily in that order!): "Because (it is) with you (that) we
are returning to your people."
What think ye?
Paul
--
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines
zellmer AT faith.edu.ph
-
Why the KIY?,
Paul Zellmer, 03/19/1999
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Why the KIY?, Jim West, 03/19/1999
- Re: Why the KIY?, peter_kirk, 03/19/1999
- Re: Why the KIY?, Paul Zellmer, 03/19/1999
- Re: Why the KIY?, Bryan Rocine, 03/20/1999
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