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  • From: peter_kirk AT SIL.ORG
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Why the KIY?
  • Date: Fri, 19 Mar 1999 23:29:17 -0500


This one looks to me like a case of KIY marking strong contrast. I
remember we discussed this on the list a few months ago but I don't
remember the context. Apparently LO) KIY is common in contradicting
replies with the meaning "No, but/rather", and KIY )IM can also mean
"but rather"; and sometimes KIY on its own has this meaning. BDB only
notes cases "after a negative", here there is an implied negative
"Don't come with me". Holladay offers Gen 31:16 as an example of this
with an implied negative, though not as a reply.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: Why the KIY?
Author: zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph at internet
Date: 19/03/1999 11:43


Sometimes the questions the young scholars ask remind me of the
questions of two-year-olds. This next one is seems like that
perennial question, "Why?"

In Ruth 1:10, the group wants to know why the imbedded speech
begins with KIY. Their leaning right now is that it could be an
entire verbless relative clause that is being fronted. To
"unfront" it and thus show what they see the unmarked form as
being, it would translate something like, "We are returning to
your people so that (we can be) with you." The other main option
that they put forward was an X-yiqtol relative clause that
explained why they were kissing and crying and calling out (not
necessarily in that order!): "Because (it is) with you (that) we
are returning to your people."

What think ye?

Paul

--
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines

zellmer AT faith.edu.ph





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