Biblical Hebrew Forum

[RHutchin AT aol.com]

In a message dated 2/21/99 12:00:34 AM, Lloyd Barre wrote:

<<A unified "Israel" never existed.  This notion is a profound misconception.
This new understanding requires a revised approach both to "Israelite"
history, to "Israelite" tradition and to "Israelite" religion in that we are
not dealing with one people but with two.
>>

Roger responds--
I am not sure what the issue is in this thread.  By unified, do you mean a
political state under a common government?  Israel seems to basically have
been a loose confederation of tribes that traced their lineage back to
Abraham/Jacob and that materialized in the Egyptian sojourn and was somewhat
organized under Moses and Joshua.  The first real political entity seems to
have occurred under Saul and lasted more or less until Solomon when two
politcal states emerged.  

As a culture, Israel seems to have been consistently unified through a common
genealogy.  I am not sure that the distinction between one people or two would
necessarily be that sharp.  For example, I am sure that there is a difference
between latinos and hispanics, but does it matter?

Regardless, whether one can describe Israel as unified at any point in time
seems to have no real relevance to anything, so far as I can see.  Is this a
common issue that people who study civilizations know of whose background
everyone is aware so that it does not need repeating during discussions such
as has been occurring recently?

Finally, what does the issue of a unified Israel have to do with the
translation of the Hebrew text or our understanding of that text?  Could
someone put this discussion in perspective for me?

Thank you.

Roger Hutchinson
RHutchin AT AOL.com