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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG
- To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
- Subject: Re: A Redefinition of "Israel"
- Date: Mon, 22 Feb 1999 01:19:42 -0500 (EST)
Please, Lloyd, can you clarify a little less tersely, and for the
benefit of all of us, your use of the Biblical text in reaching your
conclusions.
Clearly you must reject large parts of the text e.g. all the records
of the united monarchy and large parts of Genesis, Exodus, Joshua and
Judges; also all parts of later books which refer back to the united
monarchy. Incidentally, what is your theory of the origin of these
passages referring to Israel as a unity?
Yet it seems that you are accepting other large parts of the text as
historical. Or are you basing your reconstruction solely on
archaeological evidence?
What is your consistent basis for deciding which parts of the Biblical
text are historically reliable and which are later fabrications?
Peter Kirk
-
A Redefinition of "Israel",
Lloyd Barre, 02/20/1999
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: A Redefinition of "Israel", Peter_Kirk, 02/21/1999
- Re: A Redefinition of "Israel", RHutchin, 02/23/1999
- Re: A Redefinition of "Israel", Irene Riegner, 02/23/1999
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