Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryan Rocine" <596547 AT ican.net>]

Hi Lee,
You wrote:
> 
> Dear Friends,
> Quite by accident, I found an interesting x-qatal in Judges 11:29.  

<snip>
> 
> I would suggest that the the x-qatal does indeed present a sequential
> event, but the event is out of sequence with the verse that follows.
> The x-qatal is used as a break for the reader.  This break may be called
> peak (whatever that may be), and it highlights the vow of Jepthah.  The
> vow is parenthetical to the battle-narrative (verses 29, 32, & 33).
> Thus, the vow is preceded by an x-qatal.  The content of the x-qatal is
> then repeated in v.32 in order to resume the battle-narrative.  This
> break in the narrative also suggests that the writer is separating (in
> causative sense) the vow from the influence of the spirit of Yahweh.
> That is, the spirit of Yahweh causes Jepthah to lead his forces into
> battle, but the vow is a separate event, that was not instigated by the
> spirit of Yahweh.
> 
> Does this make any sense to anyone?
> 

It does make sense to me.  May I just think out loud about a curious
detail?  

Notice the X-qatal clause in question: umicpeh gil`ad `abar beney `amon  
All the translations I looked at, including yours, supply the Eng word
*to*, denoting Jephthah passed or crossed *to* the beney `amon.  I think
supplying *to* makes sense in the context of Jephthah crossing here and
there.  In addition, as you have mentioned, Jephthah does pass *to* the
beney `amon in v. 32 where the Hebrew does have the word 'el.  

BUT, like I said, a little detail...  I think it's quite unusual to see the
root `br used with a "people-name" for a direct object rather than a
place-name.  In addition, `br does have another sense besides pass over. 
It can also mean overtake (as in defeat), and this meaning may be activated
by a "people-name" for a direct object.  I.e., maybe the X-qatal clause
refers to Jephthah's overtaking of Ammon.  He was, after all, chasing them.
 How's this translation:
"And it was from Mizpeh-Gilead that he overtook the children of Ammon." 
This translation suggests, as I think the Hebrew may, a stoppage of story
time, quite approriate, as you have mentioned, in anticipation of the
parenthetical paragraph about the vow.  I realize that I am putting quite a
bit of significance on the lack of the preposition 'el in the X-qatal
clause.  What do you think?

Here are a couple references using `br to express "overtaking":  
1 Sam 14:23  And the battle overtook Beyt-'Aven  (even though Beyt 'Aven is
a place-name)
2 Sam 18:23  Then 'Ahima`ats ran and overtook the Cushite.

Shalom,
Bryan


B. M. Rocine
Associate Pastor
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13208

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