Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter_Kirk AT SIL.ORG]

Concerning Matthew's problem, I want to ask, what is he trying to do? 
To my mind an interlinear is a word-by-word, even morpheme-by-morpheme 
gloss, which assumes that readers knows some Hebrew and can decide for 
themselves e.g. what is definite and what is indefinite. Of course, if 
they can do this properly they don't need the interlinear in the first 
place, so why an interlinear?

It looks to me as if what Matthew is really trying to do is a 
translation, perhaps a very literal one, rather than an interlinear. 
That is quite a different job. But do we really need more English 
translations? Perhaps he would do better to start with an existing 
very literal translation and tidy that up.

Peter Kirk