Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Loren Crow" <lorencrow AT earthling.net>]

It seems to me much more likely that a "henotheist" (to use a term that I
find somewhat abrasive) would use the language of "monotheism" than the
other way 'round.  Also, there does not seem to me to be any good reason to
think that we have anything like "the development of monotheism" in ancient
Israel.  What we have are a few prophets whose language is conducive to the
monotheistic tendencies of some Jews of the Graeco-Roman period.  The
material culture and the Bible both show clearly (obligatory "imho") that
there was no such thing as monotheism until Daniel, at least.

Cheers!

Loren