Biblical Hebrew Forum

[GregStffrd AT aol.com]

In a message dated 1/2/99 7:26:17 PM Pacific Standard Time, barre AT c-zone.net
writes:

<< ---Lloyd Barre  wrote:
   
 >As I stated, I don't know if any other early Christian thinkers
 identified Jesus and Yahweh, but I am convinced that our text does,
 even in the face of your counter-arguments.<
 

EDGAR FOSTER
 I have spent the last three or more years of my life extensively
 studying the subject of Christology. My conclusion? None of the NT or
 OT writers ever viewed the Messiah as Yahweh incarnate. The preeminent
 OT scholar John L. Mckenzie agrees with this statement when he writes: 
 

LLOYD
 Dear Edgar,
 
 Then I would have to disagree with your conclusion for the reasons stated
 previously.  In the temple vision, Isaiah saw Jesus'=Yahweh's glory.  If
 this texts creates theological problems, so be it.  But theology should not
 dictate exegesis, and that is what I think has happened here and continues
 to happen.  But what has this to do with Hebrew linguistics?


Dear Lloyd:

Since _you_ are the one who, out of nowhere, in the middle of a discussion of
Exodus 3:14 and the EGW EIMI/'ani hu sayings in the Bible, brought up the
issue of "Jesus and Yahweh," and specifically referred to John 12:41 and
Isaiah 6 without any reference at all to a questions pertaining to Hebrew
linguistics, could you please answer your above question for us all?

Regards, 

Greg Stafford