Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Paul Zellmer <zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph>]

Lewis Reich wrote:

> On 25 Sep 98, at 20:12, Paul Zellmer wrote:
>
> > The quote of Eve is:  HaNNfXf$ Hi$$iY)aNiY Wf)oK"L
>
> > Your question is about Hi$$iY)aNiY, which is from N$)
>
> > [nun shin aleph].  There appears to be two roots with >
> these root letters, one with a basic  idea of lending
>
> Isn't the verb with the meaning "to lend" N$H  (e.g. Deut.
> 15:2, 24:11)?
>

I based my answer on Holladay, who in turn was basing his work on Koehler & 
Baumgartner.  I agree
that the nikkud in the hiphil look suspiciously like a lamed-he, but who am I 
to argue with these
authorities?

> > and the other with the basic concept of giving a false
>
> <color><param>7F00,0000,0000</param>> hope.  
> <color><param>0000,0000,0000</param>
>
> <color><param>7F00,0000,0000</param>> The word is used some fifteen times 
> in the Tanakh, most
>
> > of which deal with prophets (like Hezekiah) being
>
> > charged with "deceiving" or "giving false hope" to their
>
> > listeners.  Cf 2 King 18:29, Jeremiah 4:10.
>
> <color><param>0000,0000,0000</param>One thing about those two examples 
> struck me as somewhat
> different from Gen. 3:13, where the suffix aNiY indicates
> Hi$$iYa )oWTiY; if Gen. 3:13 were parallel to 2K 18:29
>
> [ )aL Ya$iY) LfKeM ] and  J 4:10 [ Ha$") Ha$"(Tf  Lf(fM ]
> it would have Hi$$iYa LiY, wouldn't it?    Is this
> difference in construction significant?
>

The question had to do with the meaning of N$).  Are you suggesting a 
different meaning *of the
word* due to different construction?  I see no difference in the root meaning 
even if Gen 3:13
uses the hiphil perfect while 2 Kings 18:29 and Jer. 4:10 use the imperfect.

BTW, are my messages still coming through with encoding?  I realize I let two 
slip out in HTML
format, but I thought I fixed that.

Paul

--
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines

zellmer AT faith.edu.ph