Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lewis Reich" <LBR AT sprynet.com>]

Many thanks, Paul, for the parallel citations and your helpful comments.

On 27 Sep 98, at 22:58, Paul Zellmer wrote:

> Lewis, your question concerns the use of the preposition [L] in the latter
> two when contrasted to the pronominal suffix in the former, right?

Yes, that's what I was curious about.

> The parallel passage for 2Ki is 2Ch 32:15.  Here the
> phrase is:   )aL-Ya$$iY) )eTKeM which appears to
> parallel the Gen 3 example.  Is 36:10, another parallel
> passage, uses the lamed again.  However, 2 Kings 19:10
> and Isaiah 37:10, which both has God as the supposed
> deceiver, both use the suffixed personal pronoun.  My
> guess is that N$) can use either form (direct or
> indirect) to mark its object. 

Thanks,

Lewis Reich
LBR AT sprynet.com