Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Paul Zellmer <zellmer AT cag.pworld.net.ph>]

Lewis Reich wrote:

> On 26 Sep 98, at 19:27, Paul Zellmer wrote:
>
> > The question had to do with the meaning of N$).  Are you suggesting a
> > different meaning *of the word* due to different construction?
>
> No, I was just curious about the different construction.

Just to remind ourselves, these are the three portions in question:

Gen 3:13   HaNNfXf$ Hi$$iY)aNiY Wf)oK"L
2Ki 18:29  )aL Ya$$iY) LfKeM
Jer 4:10   Ha$") Ha$"(Tf  Lf(fM

Lewis, your question concerns the use of the preposition [L] in the latter 
two when
contrasted to the pronominal suffix in the former, right?

The parallel passage for 2Ki is 2Ch 32:15.  Here the phrase is:    
)aL-Ya$$iY) )eTKeM
which appears to parallel the Gen 3 example.  Is 36:10, another parallel 
passage, uses
the lamed again.  However, 2 Kings 19:10 and Isaiah 37:10, which both has God 
as the
supposed deceiver, both use the suffixed personal pronoun.  My guess is that 
N$) can
use either form (direct or indirect) to mark its object.

HTH,

Paul
--
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab, Geoffrey Beltran
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines

zellmer AT faith.edu.ph