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percy-l - Re: transcendence and immanence

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Subject: Percy-L: Literary, Religious, Scientific, and Philosophical Discussion on Walker Percy

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  • From: "Rhonda McDonnell" <rhonda_mcdonnell AT hotmail.com>
  • To: percy-l AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: transcendence and immanence
  • Date: Fri, 22 Mar 2002 00:30:12

What happened with semiotics was the bastardization of Peirce's semeiotic, something Dr. Ketner can explain much more eloquently than I can. But, if I have it right, the problem with semiotics, if you come at it from a Peirce perspective, is that thirdness or triadic communication is dropped out of the formula. Of course for Peirce and Percy, thirdness is what it's all about, hence the conflict rather than congruence.

Rhonda McDonnell


From: rflynn AT GUILFORD.EDU
Reply-To: "Percy-L: Literary and Philosophical Discussion" <percy-l AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
To: "Percy-L: Literary and Philosophical Discussion" <percy-l AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: [percy-l] Re: transcendence and immanence
Date: Tue, 19 Mar 2002 12:22:45 -0500


Thanks folks. This will help me out some. I just finished a first draft of
the thesis and will wrap it up by late April. Here's another thing that I'd
like some help on. Do Lacan's theory of language and the Peirce-Percy
theory have much in common? I've read some things about Lacan's theory, but
am too strapped for time, and probably too dumb, to go and read a bunch of
Lacan. What I have read, though, seems to be similar to the semiotic theory
in Lost in the Cosmos. Help...please.


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